Former Ohio State quarterback and NFL hopeful Justin Fields has confirmed to the league’s teams that he has been treating epilepsy, according to a report.
NFL Network reported that teams became aware of Fields’ condition during the pre-draft process and that the condition has not had any effect on Fields’ football career. The report also added that doctors are confident that Fields will grow out of the condition, as other members of his family have.
The Mayo Clinic defines epilepsy as a neurological disorder “in which brain activity becomes abnormal, causing seizures or periods of unusual behavior, sensations, and sometimes loss of awareness.”
Citing an unnamed source, the NFL Network report stated that Fields’ symptoms have become shorter and less frequent over time after he was diagnosed when he was younger. According to the report, Fields doesn’t have seizures as long as he sticks to his medicine schedule.
The report also states that NFL teams have discussed Fields’ treatment plans and whether he would be at higher risk of playing the sport professionally.
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The first round of the NFL draft will be held April 29 and Fields is widely expected to be a top 10 selection. With the Jacksonville Jaguars expected to select Clemson’s Trevor Lawrence and the New York Jets reportedly favoring BYU’s Zach Wilson, Fields could be an option as early as the No. 3 pick to the San Francisco 49ers, who traded up to that spot.
In 34 career college games, Fields completed 68.4% of his passes for 5,701 yards with 67 touchdowns versus nine interceptions.